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NEW QUESTION: 1
Jerry Edwards is an analyst with DeLeon Analytics. He is currently advising the CFO of Anderson Corp., a multinational manufacturing corporation based in Newark, New Jersey, USA. Jackie Palmer is Edwards's assistant. Palmer is well versed in risk management, having worked at a large multinational bank for the last ten years prior to coming to Anderson.
Anderson has received a $2 million note with a duration of 4.0 from Weaver Tools for a shipment delivered last week. Weaver markets tools and machinery from manufacturers of Anderson's size. Edwards states that in order to effectively hedge the price risk of this instrument, Anderson should sell a series of interest rate calls. Palmer states that an alternative hedge for the note would be to enter an interest rate swap as the fixed-rate payer.
As well as selling products from a Swiss plant in Europe, Anderson sells products in Switzerland itself. As a result, Anderson has quarterly cash flows of 12,000,000 Swiss franc (CHF). In order to convert these cash flows into dollars, Edwards suggests that Anderson enter into a currency swap without an exchange of notional principal. Palmer contacts a currency swap dealer with whom they have dealt in the past and finds the following exchange rate and annual swap interest rates:
Exchange Rate (CHF per dollar) 1.24
Swap interest rate in U.S. dollars 2.80%
Swap interest rate in Swiss franc 6.60%
Discussing foreign exchange rate risk in general, Edwards states that it is transaction exposure that is most often hedged, because the amount to be hedged is contractual and certain. Economic exposure, he states, is less certain and thus harder to hedge.
To finance their U.S. operations, Anderson issued a S10 million fixed-rate bond in the United States five years ago. The bond had an original maturity often years and now has a modified duration of 4.0. Edwards states that Anderson should enter a 5-year semiannual pay floating swap with a notional principal of about
$11.4 million to take advantage of falling interest rates. The duration of the fixed-rate side of the swap is equal to 75% of its maturity or 3.75 (= 0.75 x 5). The duration of the floating side of the swap is 0.25.
Palmer states that Anderson's position in the swap will have a negative duration.
For another client of DeLeon, Edwards has assigned Palmer the task of estimating the interest rate sensitivity of the client's portfolios. The client's portfolio consists of positions in both U.S. and British bonds.
The relevant information for estimating (he duration contribution of the British bond and the portfolio's total duration is provided below.
U.S. dollar bond $275,000
British bond $155,000
British yield beta 1.40
Duration of U.S. bond 4.0
Duration of British bond 8.5
When discussing portfolio management with clients, Edwards recommends the use of emerging market bonds to add value to a core-plus strategy. He explains the characteristics of emerging market debt to Palmer by stating:
1. "The performance of emerging market debt has been quite resilient over time. After crises in the debt markets, emerging market bonds quickly recover after a crisis, so long-term returns can be poor."
2. "Emerging market debt is quite volatile due in part to the nature of political risk in these markets. It is therefore important that the analyst monitor the risk of these markets. I prefer to measure the risk of emerging market bonds with the standard deviation because it provides the best representation of risk in these markets." Regarding their statements concerning the hedge of the U.S. dollar-denominated bond Anderson issued, determine whether Edwards and Palmer are correct or incorrect.
A. Only Edwards is correct.
B. Only Palmer is correct.
C. Both are correct.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Edwards is correct. If management predicts that interest rates will fail, they will not want to be stuck paying a high, fixed rate. To take advantage of falling rates, they can enter a pay-floating swap (or swaption). The fixed receipt from the swap will at least partially offset the fixed payment on the bonds, while the firm ends up paying a lower floating rate. If desired, management could enter a second pay fixed swap after rates have fallen to lock in the lower fixed rate. The net duration on the first swap can be calculated as the duration of the fixed arm minus the duration of the floating arm, which is 3.75 - 0.25 = 3.5. The notional principal for the swap can be calculated as follows:

Note: Anderson will assume the receive-fixed arm of the swap, so its duration to Anderson is positive. Also, Anderson is not hedging price risk. That is, they are not trying to change the duration of the bond, so we enter the duration, as it is, in the equation.
Palmer is incorrect. Anderson is paying out a fixed rate, so to take advantage of falling rates, they should receive a fixed rate and pay out a floating rate in the swap. Because the fixed side of the swap has a greater duration than the floating side, Andersons position in the swap will have a net positive duration.
(Study Session 15, LOS 44-f)

NEW QUESTION: 2
You are working as a project manager in your organization. You are nearing the final stages of project execution and looking towards the final risk monitoring and controlling activities. For your project archives, which one of the following is an output of risk monitoring and control?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Requested changes
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Risk audits
Answer: B


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